Question:
Is there some truth in modern American accents being closer to the original English accents of 17th century?
2011-01-29 10:45:31 UTC
I read it somewhere. Strong vowels, rhoticism, and emphasis on syllables are all believed to be trademarks of Old and Middle English speakers. Also, words like "color" and "labor" were originally spelled by Shakespeare in the American way before the Brits decided to Latinize/Frenchify those words to "colour" and "labour".

What is the probability that Queen Elizabeth I sounded more like Mandy Moore?
Seven answers:
Bill
2011-01-29 12:24:44 UTC
Yes and no. There are lots of kinds of American accents...and English accents. No valley girls in Brixton.



But the linguists do draw parallels between English and southern (US) accents, the argument being that in the more rural South, language changed less, with fewer outside influences, whereas far more people in the North learned the language as immigrants.



And...I found the film True Grit to be terribly interesting, because, like the novel, the characters speak with the far more formal vernacular of the 19th century, (for example, no contractions), and just listening to it makes it easier to see the connection.
2016-04-26 06:00:39 UTC
West country accents are pirate accents. I don't mean they sound like pirate accents, they are literally the same accents. The generic image of a pirate is the english version. they came from the parts of england where people speak with that accent. I'd say strong northern irish accents sound close to american sometimes. And I reckon austrailian accents are closer to english than american. They pronounce Os the same and they don't put emphasis on Rs like the american accent.
?
2011-01-29 11:06:09 UTC
Non-Rhoticism always existed, even in America. In fact, the more historic the place in America- that is the east and the south, the stronger the non-rhoticism. New York, Boston, and New England, for example, are famous for their non-rhoticism. But, it should be noted that their non-rhoticism is of a different variety, that is, 'store' is pronounced more of 'sto-ah' with two syllables instead of one. Also, Shakespeare, while he did occasionally spelt 'colour' as 'color', sometimes spelt 'colour' in the fashion of the modern Brits. In fact, the French alternated between 'color' and 'colour' during this time as well. It was during the 18th century that any attempt was made to codify the English language in spelling and grammar. Indeed, Nathaniel Hawthorne spelt 'colour' with the '-our' as well. Webster is to thank for that development. Webster attempted to make English of the Americans more phonetic, 'color', 'center', &c. But, also note, he tried to force Americans to give up the '-ough' combination as well, spelling 'Cough' and 'Coff', 'Plough' as 'Plow', 'laugh' as 'laff', &c. Many of his attempts at reformation were not very successful, and only recently making a revival on the internet by people who can't be bothered to add two more letters to make 'you'.



Additionally, most Modern British Accents can be said to be more 'closer' to the English of olden times, places like Yorkshire using 'thou' and 'thee' still, and sometime mixing in the Norse of the Danelaw. Rural Britain usually do not see many people coming in, therefore, their accents remain unchanged or completely diverge on another path altogether, hence the famous anecdote of Yorkshire men, ie that from a man from one village haven't a clue as to what another man from a village two miles away is saying.



American English, on the other, seen a different sort of development- the adoption of Indian words, the influx of Immigrants, the African-American, &c. If I were to speak to someone of the 17th century, say John Bunyan of the Pilgrim's Progress, he probably would understand but two or three words from me, and I would understand, probably, an equal amount from him.



The main factor for this belief, I think, is the difference between our 'official' accents:

the official accent of Britain, the RP accent, was considered by the BBC because of its association with your 'Public Schools' (Private Schools in America) and the grandeur of the elite, whereas the Midland accent, that is the accent of our Newscaster, was chosen for its neutrality and for its worldly, earthly quality. Because many people associate the 'earthly' for the 'ancient', I suppose that is what cause this belief.
Professor Farnsworth
2011-01-29 11:16:11 UTC
It depends on what you consider an "American" accent. In the New York/New Jersey area where I live we speak with totally different colloquialisms than those in say Alabama, who are again different from people who live in Minnesota, who are also different from people in California. There really is no one singular "American" accent, so it's almost impossible to pin down what it would sound like compared to the old English accents from the 1600s.
gee bee
2011-01-29 10:56:47 UTC
I was on my honeymoon in 1956, down Devon and Cornwall way and I was struck by the way people talk there. Coming from London, it sounded to me like I was hearing Americans talking.



When you come to think of it, the Pilgrim Fathers set out from Plymouth, so there's your accent right there..!
2011-01-29 11:03:07 UTC
Haha I doubt. Shakespearian english was like how art thou on this pleasent morning. Thou must come hither.



Do you know any americans who speak like that.

Also, I doubt shakespeare spoke in an american accent haha
Paul Preston
2011-01-29 10:50:58 UTC
Maybe in the North of Massachusetts.


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